Tuesday, January 08, 2002

I have posted 150 sample questions for the final exam (with answers). I recommend you work through each of these problems and try to understand concepts. Do NOT just memorize answers. The final exam will cover the same concepts and the questions will be in the same format. The final exam will contain 75 questions covering chapters 1-6. Study hard. Good luck.
1. According to the law of definite proportions:
A) if the same two elements form two different compounds, they do so in the same ratio.
B) it is not possible for the same two elements to form more than one compound.
C) the ratio of the masses of the elements in a compound is always the same.
D) the total mass after a chemical change is the same as before the change.


2. Many classic experiments have given us indirect evidence of the nature of the atom. Which of the experiments listed below did not give the results described?
A) The Rutherford experiment proved the Thomson "plum-pudding" model of the atom to be essentially correct.
B) The Rutherford experiment was useful in determining the nuclear charge on the atom.
C) Millikan's oil-drop experiment showed that the charge on any particle was a simple multiple of the charge on the electron.
D) The electric discharge tube proved that electrons have a negative charge.


3. Which of the following pairs can be used to illustrate the law of multiple proportions?
A) SO and SO2
B) CO and CaCo3
C) H2O and C12H22O11
D) H2SO4 and H2S
E) KCl and KClO2


4. The first scientist to show that atoms emit any negative particles was
A) J. J. Thomson.
B) Lord Kelvin.
C) Ernest Rutherford.
D) William Thomson.
E) John Dalton.


5. The scientist whose alpha-particle scattering experiment led him to conclude that the nucleus of an atom contains a dense center of positive charge is
A) J. J. Thomson.
B) Lord Kelvin.
C) Ernest Rutherford.
D) William Thomson.
E) John Dalton.


6. Which one of the following statements about atomic structure is false?
A) The electrons occupy a very large volume compared to the nucleus.
B) Almost all of the mass of the atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
C) The protons and neutrons in the nucleus are very tightly packed.
D) The number of protons and neutrons is always the same in the neutral atom.


7. Which of the following name(s) is(are) correct?
1. sulfide S2–
2. ammonium chloride NH4Cl
3. acetic acid HC2H3O2
4. barium oxide BaO
A) all
B) none
C) 1, 2
D) 3, 4
E) 1, 3, 4


8. Which of the following atomic symbols is incorrect?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)


9. The element rhenium (Re) exists as two stable isotopes and 18 unstable isotopes. Rhenium-185 has in its nucleus
A) 75 protons, 75 neutrons.
B) 75 protons, 130 neutrons.
C) 130 protons, 75 neutrons.
D) 75 protons, 110 neutrons.
E) not enough information is given.


10. Which statement is not correct?
A) The mass of an alpha particle is 7300 times that of the electron.
B) An alpha particle has a 2+ charge.
C) Three types of radioactive emission are gamma rays, beta rays, and alpha particles.
D) A gamma ray is high-energy "light."
E) There are only three types of radioactivity known to scientists today.


11. All of the following are true except:
A) Ions are formed by adding electrons to a neutral atom.
B) Ions are formed by changing the number of protons in an atom's nucleus.
C) Ions are formed by removing electrons from a neutral atom.
D) An ion has a positive or negative charge.
E) Metals tend to form positive ions.


12. Which among the following represent a set of isotopes? Atomic nuclei containing:
I. 20 protons and 20 neutrons.
II. 21 protons and 19 neutrons.
III. 22 neutrons and 18 protons.
IV. 20 protons and 22 neutrons.
V. 21 protons and 20 neutrons.
A) I, II, III
B) III, IV
C) I, V
D) I, IV and II, V
E) No isotopes are indicated.


13. The average mass of a carbon atom is 12.011. Assuming you were able to pick up only one carbon unit, the chances that you would randomly get one with a mass of 12.011 is
A) 0%.
B) 0.011%.
C) about 12%.
D) 12.011%.
E) greater than 50%.


14. An ion is formed
A) by either adding or subtracting protons from the atom.
B) by either adding or subtracting electrons from the atom.
C) by either adding or subtracting neutrons from the atom.
D) All of the above are true.
E) Two of the above are true.


15. How many oxygen atoms are there in one formula unit of Ca3(PO4)2?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) none of these


16. All of the following are characteristics of metals except:
A) good conductors of heat
B) malleable
C) ductile
D) often lustrous
E) tend to gain electrons in chemical reactions


17. A species with 12 protons and 10 electrons is
A) Ne2+
B) Ti2+
C) Mg2+
D) Mg
E) Ne2–


18. The correct name for LiCl is
A) lithium monochloride
B) lithium (I) chloride
C) monolithium chloride
D) lithium chloride
E) monolithium monochloride


19. The correct name for FeO is
A) iron oxide
B) iron (II) oxide
C) iron (III) oxide
D) iron monoxide
E) iron (I) oxide


20. The formula for calcium bisulfate is
A) Ca(SO4)2
B) CaS2
C) Ca(HSO4)2
D) Ca2HSO4
E) Ca2S


21. Which of the following is incorrectly named?
A) Pb(NO3)2, lead(II) nitrate
B) NH4ClO4, ammonium perchlorate
C) PO43–, phosphate ion
D) Mg(OH)2, magnesium hydroxide
E) NO3–, nitrite ion


22. All of the following are in aqueous solution. Which is incorrectly named?
A) H2SO4, sulfuric acid
B) H2CO3, carbonic acid
C) H3PO4, phosphoric acid
D) HCN, cyanic acid
E) HCl, hydrochloric acid


23. It is estimated that uranium is relatively common in the earth's crust, occurring in amounts of 4 g/metric ton. A metric ton is 1000 kg. At this concentration, what mass of uranium is present in 1.0 mg of the earth's crust?
A) 4 nanograms
B) 4 micrograms
C) 4 milligrams
D) 4 ´ 10–5 g
E) 4 centigrams


24. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative observation?
A) A piece of wood is 5.3 cm long.
B) Solution 1 is much darker than solution 2.
C) The volume of liquid in beaker A is 4.3 mL
D) The temperature of the liquid is 60°C.
E) none of these


25. A quantitative observation
A) contains a number and a unit.
B) does not contain a number.
C) always makes a comparison.
D) must be obtained through experimentation.
E) none of these


26. A set of tested hypotheses that gives an overall explanation of some natural phenomenon is called a(n)
A) observation.
B) measurement.
C) theory.
D) natural law.
E) experiment.


27. Express 784000000 in exponential notation.
A) 7.84 ´ 106
B) 7.84 ´ 108
C) 78.4 ´ 107
D) 784 ´ 106
E) 784 ´ 107


28. A titration was performed to find the concentration of hydrochloric acid with the following results:
Trial Molarity
1 1.25 ± 0.01
2 1.24 ± 0.01
3 1.26 ± 0.01
The actual concentration of HCl was determined to be 1.000 M; the results of the titration are:
A) both accurate and precise.
B) accurate but imprecise.
C) precise but inaccurate.
D) both inaccurate and imprecise.
E) accuracy and precision are impossible to determine with the available information.


29. Which of the following is the least probable concerning five measurements taken in the lab?
A) The measurements are accurate and precise.
B) The measurements are accurate but not precise.
C) The measurements are precise but not accurate.
D) The measurements are neither accurate nor precise.
E) All of these are equally probable.


30. The amount of uncertainty in a measured quantity is determined by:
A) both the skill of the observer and the limitations of the measuring instrument.
B) neither the skill of the observer nor the limitations of the measuring instrument.
C) the limitations of the measuring instrument only.
D) the skill of the observer only.


31. A scientist obtains the number 1250.37986 on a calculator. If this number actually has four (4) significant figures, how should it be written?
A) 1251
B) 1250.3799
C) 1250.4
D) 1.250 ´ 103
E) 1.250 ´ 10–3


32. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.0322?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 2
E) 0


33. A piece of indium with a mass of 16.6 g is submerged in 46.3 cm3 of water in a graduated cylinder. The water level increases to 48.6 cm3. The correct value for the density of indium from these data is:
A) 7.217 g/cm3
B) 7.2 g/cm3
C) 0.14 g/cm3
D) 0.138 g/cm3
E) more than 0.1 g/cm3 away from any of these values.


34. Express 0.000543 in exponential notation.
A) 5.43 ´ 10–4
B) 5.43 ´ 10–6
C) 54.3 ´ 10–5
D) 54.3 ´ 10–3
E) 543 ´ 10–3


35. Using the rules of significant figures, calculate the following:

A) 17.5
B) 18
C) 17
D) 20
E) 17.48


36. Express the volume 159 dm3 in liters.
A) 159 L
B) 159000 L
C) 0.159 L
D) 15.9 L
E) 1.59 L


37. The degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity is called __________. It reflects the reproducibility of a given type of measurement.
A) accuracy
B) error
C) precision
D) significance
E) certainty


38. Convert 0.092 ft3 to L. (2.54 cm = 1 in., 1 L = 1 dm3)
A) 26 L
B) 2.6 L
C) 3.2 ´ 10–3 L
D) 1.8 L
E) 0.40 L


39. 423 Kelvin equals
A) 150. °F
B) 273. °F
C) 696. °F
D) 150. °C
E) 696. °C


40. The melting point of lead is 327°C. What is this on the Fahrenheit scale?
(TF = TC ´ (9°F/5°C) + 32°F)
A) 620.6°F
B) 600°F
C) 895°F
D) 621°F
E) 547°F


41. The state of matter for an object that has a definite volume but not a definite shape is
A) solid state.
B) liquid state.
C) gaseous state.
D) elemental state.
E) mixed state.


42. In 1928, rhenium cost $10,000/kg. It now costs $40/troy ounce. What is the present cost of a gram of rhenium? (1 troy ounce = 31.10 g)
A) less than $1.00
B) between $1.00 and $10
C) between $10 and $50
D) between $50 and $100
E) over $100


43. Bromine exists naturally as a mixture of bromine-79 and bromine-81 isotopes. An atom of bromine-79 contains
A) 35 protons, 44 neutrons, 35 electrons.
B) 34 protons and 35 electrons, only.
C) 44 protons, 44 electrons, and 35 neutrons.
D) 35 protons, 79 neutrons, and 35 electrons.
E) 79 protons, 79 electrons, and 35 neutrons.


44. The atomic mass of rhenium is 186.2. Given that 37.1% of natural rhenium is rhenium-185, what is the other stable isotope?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)


45. Gallium consists of two isotopes of masses 68.95 amu and 70.95 amu with abundances of 60.16% and 39.84%, respectively. What is the average atomic mass of gallium?
A) 69.95
B) 70.15
C) 71.95
D) 69.75
E) 69.55


46. Iron is biologically important in the transport of oxygen by red blood cells from the lungs to the various organs of the body. In the blood of an adult human, there are approximately 2.60 ´ 1013 red blood cells with a total of 2.90 g of iron. On the average, how many iron atoms are present in each red blood cell? (molar mass (Fe) = 55.85 g)
A) 8.33 ´ 10–10
B) 1.20 ´ 109
C) 3.12 ´ 1022
D) 2.60 ´ 1013
E) 5.19 ´ 10–2


47. A sample of ammonia has a mass of 56.6 g. How many molecules are in this sample?
A) 3.32 molecules
B) 17.03 ´ 1024 molecules
C) 6.78 ´ 1023 molecules
D) 2.00 ´ 1024 molecules
E) 1.78 ´ 1024 molecules


48. How many moles of hydrogen sulfide are contained in a 35.0-g sample of this gas?
A) 2.16 mol
B) 1.03 mol
C) 7.43 mol
D) 10.4 mol
E) 6.97 mol


49. What is the molar mass of ethanol (C2H5OH)?
A) 45.07
B) 38.90
C) 46.07
D) 34.17
E) 62.07


50. Phosphorus has the molecular formula P4 and sulfur has the molecular formula S8. How many grams of phosphorus contain the same number of molecules as 6.41 g of sulfur?
A) 3.10 g
B) 3.21 g
C) 6.19 g
D) 6.41 g
E) none of these


51. A given sample of xenon fluoride contains molecules of a single type XeFn, where n is some whole number. Given that 9.03 ´ 1020 molecules of XeFn weigh 0.311 g, calculate n.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) none of these


Use the following to answer question 52:

Phosphoric acid can be prepared by reaction of sulfuric acid with "phosphate rock" according to the equation:
Ca3(PO4)2 + 3H2SO4 ® 3CaSO4 + 2H3PO4


52. Suppose the reaction is carried out starting with 103 g of Ca3(PO4)2 and 75.0 g of H2SO4. Which substance is the limiting reactant?
A) Ca3(PO4)2
B) H2SO4
C) CaSO4
D) H3PO4
E) none of these


53. How many atoms of hydrogen are present in 6.0 g of water?
A) 2.0 × 1023
B) 7.2 × 1024
C) 1.1 × 1024
D) 4.0 × 1023
E) 0.66


54. A substance contains 35.0 g nitrogen, 5.05 g hydrogen, and 60.0 g of oxygen. How many grams of hydrogen are there in a 185-g sample of the substance?
A) 9.34 g
B) 18.7 g
C) 10.6 g
D) 5.05 g
E) 36.6 g


55. Nitric acid contains what percent hydrogen by mass?
A) 20.0%
B) 10.0%
C) 4.50%
D) 1.60%
E) 3.45%


56. In balancing an equation, we change the __________ to make the number of atoms on each side of the equation balance.
A) formulas of compounds in the reactants
B) coefficients of compounds
C) formulas of compounds in the products
D) subscripts of compounds
E) none of these


57. What is the coefficient for water when the following equation is balanced?
As(OH)3(s) + H2SO4(aq) ® As2(SO4)3(aq) + H2O(1)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 12


58. A compound is composed of element X and hydrogen. Analysis shows the compound to be 80% X by mass, with three times as many hydrogen atoms as X atoms per molecule. Which element is element X?
A) He
B) C
C) F
D) S
E) none of these


59. You heat 3.970 g of a mixture of Fe3O4 and FeO to form 4.195 g Fe2O3. The mass percent of FeO originally in the mixture was:
A) 12.1%
B) 28.7%
C) 71.3%
D) 87.9%
E) none of these


60. You heat 3.970 g of a mixture of Fe3O4 and FeO to form 4.195 g Fe2O3. The mass of oxygen reacted is
A) 0.225 g.
B) 0.475 g.
C) 1.00 g.
D) cannot be determined
E) none of these


61. The limiting reactant in a reaction
A) has the lowest coefficient in a balanced equation.
B) is the reactant for which you have the fewest number of moles.
C) has the lowest ratio of moles available/coefficient in the balanced equation.
D) has the lowest ratio of coefficient in the balanced equation/moles available.
E) none of these


62. Given the equation 3A + B ® C + D, you react 1 mole of A with 3 moles of B. True or false: A is the limiting reactant because you have fewer moles of A than B.


63. Suppose the reaction Ca3(PO4)2 + 3H2SO4 ® 3CaSO4 + 2H3PO4 is carried out starting with 103 g of Ca3(PO4)2 and 75.0 g of H2SO4. How much phosphoric acid will be produced?
A) 74.9 g
B) 50.0 g
C) 112 g
D) 32.5 g
E) 97.6 g


64. A substance, A2B, has the composition by mass of 60% A and 40% B. What is the composition of AB2 by mass?
A) 40% A, 60% B
B) 50% A, 50% B
C) 27% A, 73% B
D) 33% A, 67% B
E) none of these


65. An oxide of iron has the formula Fe3O4. What mass percent of iron does it contain?
A) 0.72%
B) 28%
C) 30.%
D) 70.%
E) 72%


66. A chloride of rhenium contains 63.6% rhenium. What is the formula of this compound?
A) ReCl
B) ReCl3
C) ReCl5
D) ReCl7
E) Re2Cl3


67. A 2.00-g sample of an oxide of bromine is converted to 2.936 g of AgBr. Calculate the empirical formula of the oxide. (molar mass for AgBr = 187.78)
A) BrO3
B) BrO2
C) BrO
D) Br2O
E) none of these


68. Adipic acid contains 49.32% C, 43.84% O, and 6.85% H by mass. What is the empirical formula?
A) C3H5O2
B) C3H3O4
C) C2HO3
D) C2H5O4
E) C3HO3


69. The characteristic odor of pineapple is due to ethyl butyrate, a compound containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Combustion of 2.78 g of ethyl butyrate leads to formation of 6.32 g of CO2 and 2.58 g of H2O. The properties of the compound suggest that the molar mass should be between 100 and 150. What is the molecular formula?


70. What is the coefficient for oxygen when the following equation is balanced?
NH3(g) + O2(g) ® NO2(g) + H2O(g)
A) 3
B) 6
C) 7
D) 12
E) 14


71. Determine the coefficient for O2 when the following equation is balanced in standard form (smallest whole number integers)
C4H10(g) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) + H2O(g)
A) 4
B) 8
C) 10
D) 13
E) 20


72. The equation, wPCl5 + xH2O ® yPOCl3 + zHCl, is properly balanced when
A) w = 1, x = 2, y = 2, z = 4
B) w = 2, x = 2, y = 2, z = 2
C) w = 2, x = 2, y = 2, z = 1
D) w = 1, x = 1, y = 1, z = 2
E) none of these


73. What would be the g Al/mole S ratio for the product of a reaction between aluminum and sulfur?
A) 26.98 g Al/mol S
B) 53.98 g Al/mol S
C) 80.94 g Al/mol S
D) 17.99 g Al/mol S
E) 40.47 g Al/mol S


74. The Claus reactions, shown below, are used to generate elemental sulfur from hydrogen sulfide.

How much sulfur (in grams) is produced from 48.0 grams of O2?
A) 16.0 g
B) 32.1 g
C) 48.1 g
D) 96.2 g
E) none of these


75. The refining of aluminum from bauxite ore (which contains 50.% Al2O3 by mass) proceeds by the overall reaction 2Al2O3 + 3C ® 4Al + 3CO2. How much bauxite ore is required to give the 5.0 ´ 1013 g of aluminum produced each year in the United States? (Assume 100% conversion.)
A) 1.3 ´ 1013 g
B) 5.3 ´ 1013 g
C) 1.9 ´ 1014 g
D) 7.6 ´ 1014 g


76. SO2 reacts with H2S as follows:
2H2S + SO2 ® 3S + 2H2O
When 7.50 g of H2S reacts with 12.75 g of SO2, which statement applies?
A) 6.38 g of sulfur are formed.
B) 10.6 g of sulfur are formed.
C) 0.0216 moles of H2S remain.
D) 1.13 g of H2S remain.
E) SO2 is the limiting reagent.


77. An unknown substance dissolves readily in water but not in benzene (a nonpolar solvent). Molecules of what type are present in the substance?
A) neither polar nor nonpolar
B) polar
C) either polar or nonpolar
D) nonpolar


78. 1.00 mL of a 3.50 ´ 10–4 M solution of oleic acid is diluted with 9.00 mL of petroleum ether, forming solution A. 2.00 mL of solution A is diluted with 8.00 mL of petroleum ether, forming solution B. How many grams of oleic acid are 5.00 mL of solution B? (molar mass for oleic acid = 282 g/mol)
A) 4.94 ´ 10–4 g
B) 7.00 ´ 10–6 g
C) 4.94 ´ 10–5 g
D) 1.97 ´ 10–6 g
E) 9.87 ´ 10–6 g


79. How many grams of NaCl are contained in 350. mL of a 0.250 M solution of sodium chloride?
A) 41.7 g
B) 5.11 g
C) 14.6 g
D) 87.5 g
E) none of these


80. Which of the following aqueous solutions contains the greatest number of ions?
A) 400.0 mL of 0.10 M NaCl
B) 300.0 mL of 0.10 M CaCl2
C) 200.0 mL of 0.10 M FeCl3
D) 200.0 mL of 0.10 M KBr
E) 800.0 mL of 0.10 M sucrose


81. A 54.8 g sample of SrCl2 is dissolved in 112.5 mL of solution. Calculate the molarity of this solution.
A) 0.346 M
B) 3.07 M
C) 3.96 M
D) 8.89 M
E) none of these


82. A 51.24-g sample of Ba(OH)2 is dissolved in enough water to make 1.20 liters of solution. How many mL of this solution must be diluted with water in order to make 1.00 liter of 0.100 molar Ba(OH)2?
A) 400. mL
B) 333 mL
C) 278 mL
D) 1.20 ´ 103 mL
E) none of these


83. How many grams of NaOH are contained in 5.0 ´ 102 mL of a 0.80 M sodium hydroxide solution?
A) 16 g
B) 80. g
C) 20. g
D) 64 g
E) none of these


84. The net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum sulfate and sodium hydroxide contains which of the following species?
A) 3Al3+(aq)
B) OH–(aq)
C) 3OH–(aq)
D) 2Al3+(aq)
E) 2Al(OH)3(s)


85. Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A) HI – strong acid
B) HNO3 – weak acid
C) Ba(OH)2 – strong base
D) HBr – strong acid
E) NH3 – weak acid


86. The interaction between solute particles and water molecules, which tends to cause a salt to fall apart in water, is called
A) hydration.
B) polarization.
C) dispersion.
D) coagulation.
E) conductivity.


87. When solutions of cobalt(II) chloride and carbonic acid react, which of the following terms will be present in the net ionic equation?
A) CoCO3(s)
B) H+(aq)
C) 2CoCO3(s)
D) 2Cl–(aq)
E) two of these


88. You mix 260. mL of 1.20 M lead(II) nitrate with 300. mL of 1.90 M potassium iodide. The lead(II) iodide is insoluble. Which of the following is false?
A) The final concentration of Pb2+ ions is 0.0482 M.
B) You form 131 g of lead(II) iodide.
C) The final concentration of K+ is 1.02 M.
D) The final concentration of NO3– is 1.02 M.
E) All are true.


89. You have 2 solutions of chemical A. To determine which has the highest concentration of A in molarity, what is the minimum number of the following you must know?
I. the mass in grams of A in each solution
II. the molar mass of A
III. the volume of water added to each solution
IV. the total volume of the solution
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) You must know all of them.


90. The following reactions
2K(s) + Br2(l) ® 2KBr(s)
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) ® AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
HCl(aq) + KOH(aq) ® H2O(l) + KCl(aq)
are examples of
A) precipitation reactions.
B) redox, precipitation, and acid-base, respectively.
C) precipitation (two) and acid-base reactions, respectively.
D) redox reactions.
E) none of these


91. Aqueous solutions of sodium sulfide and copper(II) chloride are mixed together. Which statement is correct?
A) Both NaCl and CuS precipitate from solution.
B) No precipitate forms.
C) CuS will precipitate from solution.
D) NaCl will precipitate from solution.
E) No reaction will occur.


92. In the balanced molecular equation for the neutralization of sodium hydroxide with sulfuric acid, the products are:
A) NaSO4 + H2O
B) NaSO3 + 2H2O
C) 2NaSO4 + H2O
D) Na2S + 2H2O
E) Na2SO4 + 2H2O


93. If all of the chloride in a 5.000-g sample of an unknown metal chloride is precipitated as AgCl with 70.90 mL of 0.2010 M AgNO3, what is the percentage of chloride in the sample?
A) 50.55%
B) 10.10%
C) 1.425%
D) 20.22%
E) none of these


94. You have separate solutions of HCl and H2SO4 with the same concentrations in terms of molarity. You wish to neutralize a solution of NaOH. Which acid solution would require more volume (in mL) to neutralize the base?
A) the HCl solution
B) the H2SO4 solution
C) You need to know the acid concentrations to answer this question.
D) You need to know the volume and concentration of the NaOH solution to answer this question.
E) You need to know the acid concentrations and the volume and concentration of the NaOH solution to answer this question.


95. A 3.00-g sample of an alloy (containing only Pb and Sn) was dissolved in nitric acid (HNO3). Sulfuric acid was added to this solution, which precipitated 2.93 g of PbSO4. Assuming that all of the lead was precipitated, what is the percentage of Sn in the sample? (molar mass of PbSO4 = 303.3 g/mol)
A) 33.3% Sn
B) 17.7% Sn
C) 50.0% Sn
D) 66.7% Sn
E) 2.00% Sn


96. A 1.000-g sample of a metal chloride, MCl2, is dissolved in water and treated with excess aqueous silver nitrate. The silver chloride that formed weighed 1.286 g. Calculate the atomic mass of M.
A) 222.8 g
B) 76.00 g
C) 152.0 g
D) 304.0 g
E) none of these


97. A 0.307-g sample of an unknown triprotic acid is titrated to the third equivalence point using 35.2 mL of 0.106 M NaOH. Calculate the molar mass of the acid.
A) 247 g/mol
B) 171 g/mol
C) 165 g/mol
D) 151 g/mol
E) 82.7 g/mol


98. The following reactions
ZnBr2(aq) + 2AgNO3(aq) ® Zn(NO3)2(aq) + 2AgBr(s)
KBr(aq) + AgNO3(aq) ® AgBr(s) + KNO3(aq)
are examples of
A) oxidation-reduction reactions.
B) acid-base reactions.
C) precipitation reactions.
D) oxidation-reduction and precipitation reactions.
E) none of these


99. In the reaction C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g) carbon is __________.
A) the reducing agent
B) the electron acceptor
C) reduced
D) the oxidizing agent
E) more than one of these


100. Diabetics often need injections of insulin to help maintain the proper blood glucose levels in their bodies. How many moles of insulin are needed to make up 45 mL of 0.0052 M insulin solution?
A) 4.6 ´ 10–4 mol
B) 5.0 ´ 10–3 mol
C) 1.7 ´ 10–4 mol
D) 6.0 ´ 102 mol
E) 2.3 ´ 10–4 mol


101. Which of the following statements is(are) true? Oxidation and reduction
A) cannot occur independently of each other.
B) accompany all chemical changes.
C) describe the loss and gain of electron(s), respectively.
D) result in a change in the oxidation states of the species involved.
E) a, c, and d are true


102. In the reaction Zn + H2SO4 ® ZnSO4 + H2, which, if any, element is oxidized?
A) zinc
B) hydrogen
C) sulfur
D) oxygen
E) none of these


103. Given the following reaction in acidic media:
Fe2+ + Cr2O72– ® Fe3+ + Cr3+
answer the following question: The coefficient for water in the balanced reaction is
A) 1.
B) 3.
C) 5.
D) 7.
E) none of these


104. A glass column is filled with mercury and inverted in a pool of mercury. The mercury column stabilizes at a height of 735 mm above the pool of mercury. What is the pressure of the atmosphere?
A) 0.697 atm
B) 0.735 atm
C) 0.967 atm
D) 1.03 atm
E) 194 atm


105. You and a friend have gas samples in open manometers as shown:

You have Hg(l) in your manometer and your friend has water. The height h is the same in both manometers. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Your sample of gas has the higher pressure.
B) Your friend's sample of gas has the higher pressure.
C) Both samples of gas have the same pressure.
D) There is not enough information to answer the question.
E) None of these is correct.


106. A gas sample is held at constant pressure. The gas occupies 3.62 L of volume when the temperature is 21.6°C. Determine the temperature at which the volume of the gas is 3.45 L.
A) 309 K
B) 281 K
C) 20.6 K
D) 294 K
E) 326 K


107. Gaseous chlorine is held in two separate containers at identical temperature and pressure. The volume of container 1 is 1.30 L and it contains 6.70 mol of the gas. The volume of container 2 is 2.20 L. How many moles of the gas are in container 2.
A) 11.3 mol
B) 19.2 mol
C) 0.427 mol
D) 3.96 mol
E) none of these


108. A gas sample is heated from –20.0°C to 57.0°C and the volume is increased from 2.00 L to 4.50 L. If the initial pressure is 0.125 atm, what is the final pressure?
A) 0.189 atm
B) 0.555 atm
C) 0.0605 atm
D) 0.247 atm
E) none of these


109. The valve between a 5-L tank containing a gas at 9 atm and a 10-L tank containing a gas at 6 atm is opened. Calculate the final pressure in the tanks.
A) 3 atm
B) 4 atm
C) 7 atm
D) 15 atm
E) none of these


110. You fill a balloon with 2.50 moles of gas at 28°C at a pressure of 1.20 atm. What is the volume of the balloon?
A) 4.79 L
B) 22.4 L
C) 51.5 L
D) 56.0 L
E) 61.8 L


111. Body temperature is about 308 K. On a cold day, what volume of air at 273 K must a person with a lung capacity of 2.00 L breathe in to fill the lungs?
A) 2.26 L
B) 1.77 L
C) 1.13 L
D) 3.54 L
E) none of these


112. An automobile tire is filled with air at a pressure of 30 lb/in2 at 25°C. A cold front moves through and the temperature drops to 5°C. Assuming no change in volume, what is the new tire pressure?
A) 6.0 lb/in2
B) 28 lb/in2
C) 32 lb/in2
D) 20. lb/in2
E) 4.0 lb/in2


113. Given reaction N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3, you mix 1 mol each of nitrogen and hydrogen gases under the same conditions in a container fixed with a piston. Calculate the ratio of volumes of the container (Vfinal/Vinitial).
A) 0.67
B) 1.00
C) 1.33
D) 1.50
E) none of these


114. Which of the following is the best qualitative graph of P versus molar mass of a 1-g sample of different gases at constant volume and temperature?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)


115. Given a cylinder of fixed volume filled with 1 mol of argon gas, which of the following is correct? (Assume all gases obey the ideal gas law.)
A) If the temperature of the cylinder is changed from 25°C to 50°C, the pressure inside the cylinder will double.
B) If a second mole of argon is added to the cylinder, the ratio T/P would remain constant.
C) A cylinder of identical volume filled with the same pressure of helium must contain more atoms of gas because He has a smaller atomic radius than argon.
D) Two of the above.
E) None of the above.


Use the following to answer question 116:

Four identical 1.0-L flasks contain the gases He, Cl2, CH4, and NH3, each at 0°C and 1 atm pressure.


116. For which gas do the molecules have the smallest average kinetic energy?
A) He
B) Cl2
C) CH4
D) NH3
E) all gases the same


Use the following to answer questions 117-118:

A plastic bag is weighed and then filled successively with two gases, X and Y. The following data are gathered:
Temperature: 0.0°C (273 K)
Pressure: 1.00 atmosphere
Mass of empty bag: 20.77 g
Mass of bag filled with gas X: 24.97 g
Mass of 1.12 liters of air at conditions given: 1.30 g
Volume of bag: 1.12 liter
Molar volume at STP: 22.4 liters


117. The mass of 1.12 liters of gas Y is found to be 6.23 g. The density of gas Y is
A) 10.6 g/L
B) 5.56 g/L
C) 15.6 g/L
D) 0.200 g/L
E) 0.180 g/L


118. The bag is emptied and refilled, successively, with gases X and Y, this time at 1 atm pressure and a temperature 30°C higher. Assume that the volume of the bag is the same as before. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
A) The full bag contains fewer molecules of each gas than it did at 0.0°C.
B) The ratio of the density of gas Y to the density of gas X is the same as at 0.0°C.
C) The molar masses of the two gases are the same as they were at 0.0°C.
D) The mass of each gas filling the bag is now 303/273 times the mass held at 0.0°C.
E) The average velocity of the molecules of gas X at 30°C is higher than it was at 0.0°C.


119. When 0.72 g of a liquid is vaporized at 110°C and 0.967 atm, the gas occupies a volume of 0.559 L. The empirical formula of the gas is CH2. What is the molecular formula of the gas?
A) CH2
B) C2H4
C) C3H6
D) C4H8
E) none of these


120. Gaseous C2H4 reacts with O2 according to the following equation:
C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) ® 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
What volume of oxygen at STP is needed to react with 1.50 mol of C2H4?
A) 4.50 L
B) 33.6 L
C) 101 L
D) 67.2 L
E) Not enough information is given to solve the problem.


121. A 3.31-g sample of lead nitrate, Pb(NO3)2, molar mass = 331 g/mol, is heated in an evacuated cylinder with a volume of 1.62 L. The salt decomposes when heated, according to the equation
2Pb(NO3)2(s) ® 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Assuming complete decomposition, what is the pressure in the cylinder after decomposition and cooling to a temperature of 300 K? Assume the PbO(s) takes up negligible volume.
A) 0.380 atm
B) 0.228 atm
C) 0.0342 atm
D) 1.38 atm
E) none of these


122. The purity of a sample containing zinc and weighing 0.198 g is determined by measuring the amount of hydrogen formed when the sample reacts with an excess of hydrochloric acid. The determination shows the sample to be 84.0% zinc. What amount of hydrogen (measured at STP) was obtained?
A) 0.152 L
B) 0.0330 g
C) 3.42 ´ 10–3 mole
D) 1.53 ´ 1021 molecules
E) 1.53 ´ 1021 atoms


123. What volume of H2O(g) measured at STP is produced by the combustion of 4.00 g of natural gas (CH4) according to the following equation?
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ® CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)
A) 5.60 L
B) 11.2 L
C) 22.4 L
D) 33.6 L
E) 44.8 L


124. Calcium hydride combines with water according to the equation
CaH2(s) + 2H2O(l) ® 2H2(g) + Ca(OH)2(s)
Beginning with 84.0 g of CaH2 and 36.0 g of H2O, what volume of H2 will be produced at 273 K and a pressure of 1520 torr?
A) 22.4 L
B) 44.8 L
C) 89.6 L
D) 179 L
E) none of these


125. A 1.00-g sample of a gaseous compound of boron and hydrogen occupies 0.820 L at 1.00 atm and 3°C. What is the molecular formula for the compound?
A) BH3
B) B2H6
C) B4H10
D) B3H12
E) B5H14


126. Given the equation
2KClO3(s) ® 2KCl(s) + 3O2(g)
A 3.00 g sample of KClO3 is decomposed and the oxygen at 24.0°C and 0.982 atm is collected. What volume of oxygen gas will be collected assuming 100% yield?
A) 304 mL
B) 608 mL
C) 911 mL
D) 1820 mL
E) none of these


Use the following to answer question 127:

Zinc metal is added to hydrochloric acid to generate hydrogen gas and is collected over a liquid whose vapor pressure is the same as pure water at 20.0°C (18 torr). The volume of the mixture is 1.7 L and its total pressure is 0.810 atm.


127. What would happen to the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas sample if the temperature of the sample increased from 20°C to 40°C?
A) It would double.
B) It would increase.
C) It would decrease.
D) It would become half its value.
E) Two of these.


128. A vessel with a volume of 10.0 L contains 2.80 g of nitrogen gas, 0.403 g of hydrogen gas, and 79.9 g of argon gas. At 25°C, what is the pressure in the vessel?
A) 0.471 atm
B) 6.43 atm
C) 3.20 atm
D) 5.62 atm
E) 2.38 atm


129. A balloon contains an anesthetic mixture of cyclopropane (cp) and oxygen (O2) at 170 torr and 570 torr, respectively. What is the ratio of the number of moles of cyclopropane to moles of oxygen?
ncp/no2 = ?
A) 0.19
B) 0.23
C) 0.30
D) 0.39
E) 0.46


130. Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?
A) Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the atom.
B) The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of the container.
C) The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are insignificant.
D) The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.
E) All of these are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.


131. Use the kinetic molecular theory of gases to predict what would happen to a closed sample of a gas whose temperature increased while its volume decreased.
A) Its pressure would decrease.
B) Its pressure would increase.
C) Its pressure would hold constant.
D) The number of moles of the gas would decrease.
E) The average kinetic energy of the molecules of the gas would decrease.


132. Calculate the ratio of the effusion rates of N2 and N2O.
A) 0.637
B) 1.57
C) 1.25
D) 0.798
E) 1.61


133. A gas absorbs 0.0 J of heat and then performs 15.2 J of work. The change in internal energy of the gas is
A) –24.8 J
B) 14.8 J
C) 55.2 J
D) –15.2 J
E) none of these


134. Calculate the work for the expansion of CO2 from 1.0 to 2.5 liters against a pressure of 1.0 atm at constant temperature.
A) 1.5 liter × atm
B) 2.5 liter × atm
C) 0
D) –1.5 liter × atm
E) –2.5 liter × atm


135. Of energy, work, enthalpy, and heat, how many are state functions?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4


136. Which of the following statements correctly describes the signs of q and w for the following exothermic process at P = 1 atm and T = 370 K?
H2O(g) ® H2O(l)
A) q and w are negative.
B) q is positive, w is negative.
C) q is negative, w is positive.
D) q and w are both positive.
E) q and w are both zero.


137. For a particular process q = 20 kJ and w = 15 kJ. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Heat flows from the system to the surroundings.
B) The system does work on the surroundings.
C) DE = 35 kJ.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above are true.


138. Which statement is true of a process in which one mole of a gas is expanded from state A to state B?
A) When the gas expands from state A to state B, the surroundings are doing work on the system.
B) The amount of work done in the process must be the same, regardless of the path.
C) It is not possible to have more than one path for a change of state.
D) The final volume of the gas will depend on the path taken.
E) The amount of heat released in the process will depend on the path taken.


139. Which one of the following statements is false?
A) The change in internal energy, DE, for a process is equal to the amount of heat absorbed at constant volume, qv.
B) The change in enthalpy, DH, for a process is equal to the amount of heat absorbed at constant pressure, qp.
C) A bomb calorimeter measures DH directly.
D) If qp for a process is negative, the process is exothermic.
E) The freezing of water is an example of an exothermic reaction.


140. Two metals of equal mass with different heat capacities are subjected to the same amount of heat. Which undergoes the smallest change in temperature?
A) The metal with the higher heat capacity.
B) The metal with the lower heat capacity.
C) Both undergo the same change in temperature.
D) You need to know the initial temperatures of the metals.
E) You need to know which metals you have.


141. You take 200. g of a solid at 30.0°C and let it melt in 400. g of water. The water temperature decreases from 85.1°C to 30.0°C. Calculate the heat of fusion of this solid.
A) 125 J/g
B) 285 J/g
C) 461 J/g
D) 518 J/g
E) cannot without the heat capacity of the solid


142. Consider a rigid insulated box containing 20.0 g of He(g) at 25.0°C and 1.00 atm in one compartment and 20.0 g of N2(g) at 115.0 °C and 2.00 atm in the other compartment. These compartments are connected by a partition which transmits heat. What will be the final temperature in the box at thermal equilibrium? (Cv(He)= 12.5 J/K mol, Cv(N2)= 20.7 J/K mol)
A) 42.2°C
B) 58.9°C
C) 70.0°C
D) 81.0°C
E) none of these


143. Which of the following properties is (are) intensive properties?
I. mass
II. temperature
III. volume
IV. concentration
V. energy
A) I, III, and V
B) II only
C) II and IV
D) III and IV
E) I and V


144. Consider the reaction
H2(g) + (1/2)O2(g) ® H2O(l) DH° = –286 kJ
Which of the following is true?
A) The reaction is exothermic.
B) The reaction is endothermic.
C) The enthalpy of the products is less than that of the reactants.
D) Heat is absorbed by the system.
E) The reaction is exothermic and the enthalpy of the products is less than that of the reactants.


145. What is the heat capacity of mercury if it requires 167 J to change the temperature of 15.0 g mercury from 25.0°C to 33.0°C?
A) 6.92 ´ 10–3 J/g°C
B) 1.12 ´ 10–2 J/g°C
C) 0.445 J/g°C
D) 1.39 J/g°C
E) 313 J/g°C


146. A 4.0-g sample of Colorado oil shale is burned in a bomb calorimeter, which causes the temperature of the calorimeter to increase by 5.0°C. The calorimeter contains 1.00 kg of water (CH2O = 4.184 J/g°C) and the heat capacity of the empty calorimeter is 0.10 kJ/°C. How much heat is released per gram of oil shale when it is burned?
A) 21 kJ/g
B) 42 kJ/g
C) 0 kJ/g
D) 5.4 kJ/g
E) 5.2 kJ/g


147. Consider the following processes:
2A ® 1/2B + C DH1 = 5 kJ/mol
(3/2)B + 4C ® 2A + C + 3D DH2 = –15 kJ/mol
E + 4A ® C DH3 = 10 kJ/mol
Calculate DH for: C ® E + 3D
A) 0 kJ/mol
B) 10 kJ/mol
C) –10 kJ/mol
D) –20 kJ/mol
E) 20 kJ/mol


148. Consider the following processes:
DH (kJ/mol)
(1/2)A ® B 150.
3B ® 2C + D –125.
E + A ® D 350.
Calculate DH for: B + D ® E + 2C
A) 325 kJ/mol
B) 525 kJ/mol
C) –175 kJ/mol
D) –325 kJ/mol
E) none of these


149. Consider the following numbered processes:
I. A ® 2B
II. B ® C + D
III. E ® 2D
DH for the process A ® 2C + E is
A) DH1 + DH2 + DH3
B) DH1 + DH2
C) DH1 + DH2 – DH3
D) DH1 + 2DH2 – DH3
E) DH1 + 2DH2 + DH3


150. Acetylene (C2H2) and butane (C4H10) are gaseous fuels. Determine the ratio of energy available from the combustion of a given volume of acetylene to butane at the same temperature and pressure using the following data:
The change in enthalpy of combustion for
C2H2(g) = –49.9 kJ/g.
The change in enthalpy of combustion for
C4H10 = –49.5 kJ/g.




Answer Key -- honors final review

1. C
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. E
9. D
10. E
11. B
12. D
13. A
14. B
15. D
16. E
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. C
21. E
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. A
35. C
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. D
41. B
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. D
46. B
47. D
48. B
49. C
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. D
54. A
55. D
56. B
57. D
58. B
59. B
60. A
61. C
62. False
63. B
64. C
65. E
66. B
67. A
68. A
69. C6H12O2
70. C
71. D
72. D
73. D
74. D
75. C
76. B
77. B
78. E
79. B
80. B
81. B
82. A
83. A
84. C
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. D
89. C
90. B
91. C
92. E
93. B
94. A
95. A
96. C
97. A
98. C
99. A
100. E
101. E
102. A
103. D
104. C
105. A
106. B
107. A
108. E
109. C
110. C
111. B
112. B
113. A
114. A
115. E
116. E
117. B
118. D
119. C
120. C
121. A
122. D
123. B
124. A
125. B
126. C
127. B
128. D
129. C
130. A
131. B
132. C
133. D
134. D
135. C
136. C
137. C
138. E
139. C
140. A
141. C
142. A
143. C
144. E
145. D
146. D
147. C
148. C
149. D
150. About 2.21 times the volume of acetylene is needed to furnish the same energy as a given volume of butane.